Biblical Inerrancy

I don't really have much of a solidified (based on my own personal evidence and research) opinion on exactly what I myself would subscribe to under the heading of 'Biblical Inerrancy' though I do think it provokes interesting thought.

It would seem that Biblical Inerrancy must be claimed more or less on faith alone. (as well as Biblical errancy but that is slightly different)

For even if the Bible were to state in a specific verse: "All original autographs of the inspired word of God are free from error" that would not get us anywhere conclusive. For someone to draw on it as proof of inerrancy they would first have to presuppose its inerrancy.

Now to prove errancy one must have access to original autographs of the book(s) in question. This is because translators and transcribers surely do error or atleast differ. Unfortunately no original autographs are in known existence. Though even if there were some what would thus be defined as an error. Hmm...